Daily MCQ

1st Sep to 30 Sep MCQ for UPSC IAS Exam – Based on The hindu Newspaper

Posted on by Arora IAS

1st sep to 30 sep  MCQ cum Answer 

Based on The Hindu & PIB

 

 

 Consider the following statements about GDP deflator.

  1. GDP deflator reflects the prices of all domestically produced goods and services in the economy.
  2. The GDP deflator also includes the prices of investment goods, government services and exports.
  3. Monthly change in inflation cannot be tracked using GDP deflator.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

 

Solution – D

The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) deflator is a measure of general price inflation. It is calculated by dividing nominal GDP by real GDP and then multiplying by 100.

 There are other measures of inflation too like Consumer Price Index (CPI) and Wholesale Price Index (or WPI); however, GDP deflator is a much broader and comprehensive measure. Since Gross Domestic Product is an aggregate measure of production, being the sum of all final uses of goods and services (less imports), GDP deflator reflects the prices of all domestically produced goods and services in the economy whereas, other measures like CPI and WPI are based on a limited basket of goods and services, thereby not representing the entire economy.

The GDP deflator also includes the prices of investment goods, government services and exports, and excludes the price of imports.

 While WPI and CPI are available on monthly basis the deflator comes with a lag (yearly or quarterly, after quarterly GDP data is released). Hence, monthly change in inflation cannot be tracked using GDP deflator, limiting its usefulness.

With reference to the Ramsar Convention, consider the following statements:

 

  1. It was signed in Iran
  2. Under the convention, human-made sites such as rice paddies too can be designated as wetlands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  3. 1 Only
  4. 2 Only
  5. Both 1 and 2
  6. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution – C

  • The Convention on Wetlands was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975. Since then, almost 90% of UN member states, from all the world’s geographic regions, have acceded to become “Contracting Parties”.
    • The Convention uses a broad definition of wetlands. It includes all lakes and rivers, underground aquifers, swamps and marshes, wet grasslands, peat lands, oases, estuaries, deltas and tidal flats, mangroves and other coastal areas, coral reefs, and all human- made sites such as fish ponds, rice paddies, reservoirs and salt pans.

 

Which of the following are/ is an ecotone?

  1. Mangroves
  2. Grassland
  3. Forest
  4. Estuary
  5. Coral Reef

Select the correct code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 2, 3, 4 and 5
  4. 1, 3, 4 and 5

Solution – B

An ecotone is a transition area between two biomes. It is where two communities meet and integrate. It may be narrow or wide, and it may be local (the zone between a field and forest) or regional (the transition between forest and grassland ecosystems).

For  e.g. the mangrove forests represent an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystem, grassland (between forest and desert), estuary (between fresh water and salt water) and river bank or marsh land (between dry and wet).

Who is the former ISRO chairman who initiated the development of the Geo Stationary Launch Vehicle (GSLV) and the development of cryogenic technology in 1991?

  1. G. Madhavan Nair
    B.KK Radhakrishnan
    C. UR Rao
    D. Shailesh Nayak

Solution – C

Consider the following pairs:

National Park                                                  State

  1. Sanjay Gandhi National Park                   Maharashtra
  2. Manas National Park                                West Bengal
  3. Dudhwa National Park                             Uttar Pradesh
  4. Dachigam National Park                              Uttarakhand

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. 2, 4
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Solution – B

Manas National Park – Manas National Park or Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is a national park, UNESCO Natural World Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, an elephant reserve and a biosphere reserve in Assam

 

Dachigam National Park – Dachigam National Park is located 22 kilometres from Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Sufi silsilahs?

1) The Sufi orders were divided into two – Be-shari’a, those which followed the Islamic Law (shari’a) and Ba-shari’a, those who were not bound by it.
2) Qalandars, Madaris, Malangs, Haidaris, etc. were some of the Ba-shari‘a Sufis.

  1. Only 1
    B.Only 2
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. None of the above

Solution – D

Some mystics initiated movements based on a radical interpretation of Sufi ideals. Many scorned the khanqah and took to mendicancy and observed celibacy. They ignored rituals and observed extreme forms of asceticism. They were known by different names – Qalandars, Madaris, Malangs, Haidaris, etc. Because of their deliberate defiance of the Shari‘a they were often referred to as be-shari‘a, in contrast to the ba-shari‘a Sufis who complied with it.

Consider the relationship between species diversity and area

  1. The species diversity is directly proportional to the area
  2. The rate of increase of species diversity with area is lesser for a small city than over a continent

 Select the right code

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None

Solution – C

German naturalist and geographer Alexander von Humboldt observed that within a region species richness increased with increasing explored area, but only up to a limit.

On a logarithmic scale, the relationship is a straight line described by the equation log S = log C + Z log A where
S= Species richness, A= Area, Z = slope of the line (regression coefficient)
C = Y-intercept

Ecologists have discovered that the value of Z lies in the range of 0.1 to 0.2, regardless of the taxonomic group or the region (whether it is the plants in Britain,
birds in California or molluscs in New York State, the slopes of the regression line are amazingly similar).

But the species-area relationships among very large areas like the entire continents, the slope of the line to be much steeper (Z values in the range of 0.6 to 1.2)

 

 

 

 

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

 

  1. The purchasing power of currency falls due to inflation.
  2. Deflation is a slowdown in the rate of price inflation.
  3. Core inflation includes Food and Fuel.
  4. Stagflation occurs when the prices of goods rise while unemployment increases and spending declines.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 4
  3. 2 and 3
  4. All of the above

Solution – B

Inflation is the rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services is rising and, consequently, the purchasing power of currency is falling.

Disinflation is a slowing in the rate of price inflation.

Core inflation excludes Food and Fuel. 

 

Which of the following statements regarding the newly launched scheme “Integrated Management of Public Distribution System (IM-PDS)” stands true?

1) The main objective of the scheme is to introduce nation-wide portability of ration card holders under National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA), to lift their entitlement food grains from any FPS in the country without the need to obtain a new ration card.
2) Keeping in view the physical progress under ongoing scheme and readiness for implementation of National Portability in few States, it has been decided to implement inter-State/National Portability on a pilot basis in few States shortly via Public Distribution System Network (PDSN).
3) Presently NFSA provides the coverage for about 81.34 Crore persons across the country with Maharashtra having the highest coverage.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

 

Solution – A

Statement 3 is not correct- Under the NFSA provision, and as of July, 2019, West Bengal was having the highest coverage, 601.84 (Lakh)

Consider the following statements about Bio fuels in India-

  1. Under the Ethanol Blending Programme, The Government ensures that fuel is extracted from surplus production of sugarcane only at subsidized rates, to lessen the burden on the exhaustible fuels.
  2. The renewable ethanol content is expected to result in a net reduction in the emission of carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide (CO) and Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC)
  3. The objective of the Bio- fuel policy 2018 is to achieve 20% ethanol-blending and 5% biodiesel-blendingby the year 2030.
  4. Bio ethanol is denatured alcohol. It is also called as methylated spirit. It causes blindness on consumption.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 3 and 2 only
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Solution –

Statement 1 is not correct- The Central Government has extended the ambit of the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) programme to extract the fuel from surplus quantities of food grains such as maize, jawar, bajra, fruit and vegetable waste.

Statement 2 is not correct- The renewable ethanol content is expected to result in a net reduction in the emission of carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide (CO) and Hydrocarbons (HC)

 

Consider the Following statements about Rabies-

  1. World Rabies Day is an initiative of Global Alliance for Rabies Control. Observance of the day was initiated in 2007 to create a global opportunity for people to focus on rabies prevention.
    2. The day is annually on 28 September to mark death anniversary of Louis Pasteur, a French chemist and microbiologist who had developed the first rabies vaccine along with his colleagues.
    3. The 2019 theme is ‘Rabies: Zero by 30’
  2. Rabies is a viral disease that causes inflammation of brain (acute encephalitis) in warm-blooded animals.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

  1. All of the above
  2. 1, 2, 3
  3. 1, 2, 4
  4. 2, 3, 4

Solution – C

Statement 3 is not correct – September 28th 2019 will be the 13th World Rabies Day, and this year’s theme focuses on vaccination, the foundation of all rabies control efforts. The theme, Rabies: Vaccinate to Eliminate

 

Consider the following statements on WHO initiatives to tackle the cardiovascular diseases on a global level-

  1. To support governments in strengthening the prevention and control of cardiovascular diseases (CVDs), in 2019 WHO and the United States Centres for Disease Control and Prevention (US CDC) launched the Global Hearts Initiative.

2.The Global Hearts Initiative comprises the MPOWER package for tobacco control in line with the WHO Framework Convention on Tobacco Control, the ACTIVE package for increasing physical activity, the SHAKE package for salt reduction, and the REPLACE package to eliminate industrially-produced trans fat from the global food supply.

  1. The theme of World Hypertension Day 2019 was “Know your numbers.” The theme is meant to raise awareness about high blood pressure in people across the world and it fell on May 17th
  2. To achieve the global target to reduce the prevalence of hypertension by 25% by 2025, WHO and the United States Centres for Disease Control and Prevention launched the Global Hearts Initiative

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1, 4, 2
  2. 2, 3, 4
  3. 3, 4, 1
  4. All of the Above

Solution – B

Statement 1 is not correct- To support governments in strengthening the prevention and control of cardiovascular diseases (CVDs), in 2016 WHO and the United States Centres for Disease Control and Prevention (US CDC) launched the Global Hearts Initiative.

 

Match the following Wildlife Sanctuaries with their states and select the correct codes given below-

Wildlife Sanctuaries                                                                    States

  1. Sessa Orchid Sanctuary A Meghalaya
  2. Gumti Wild Sanctuary B Tripura
  3. Nongkhyllem Wildlife Sanctuary C Arunachal Pradesh

4. Ntangki National Park                                                           D Nagaland

Which of the above matched are/is correct?

 

  1. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
  2. 1-D, 2- C, 3- A, 4- B
  3. 1-C, 2-B, 3- A, 4- D
  4. 1- B, 2-D, 3- C, 4- A

Solution – C

 

India was elected to United Nations’ Human Rights Council’, the main body of UN charged with promoting and monitoring human rights for period of three years beginning January 1, 2019.

 Which of the following statements is /are true about India’s membership and UNHRC?

  1. from Asia-Pacific region category, Fiji with 187 and Sri Lanka with 178 votes were also elected along with India. This was fifth time India has been elected.
  2. India secured 188 votes in Asia-Pacific category, the highest number of votes among all candidates.
  3. Both the statements given above is Correct
  4. None of the above is/are correct

 

Solution – B

Statement 1 is not correct – the other country elected in the Asia Pacific region was Bangladesh with a total of 178 votes

 

Consider the following statements-

  1. GVA – taxes on products + subsidies on products = GDP, defines the relationship between GDP and GVA.
  2. In the revision of National Accounts statistics done by Central Statistical Organization (CSO) in January 2015, it was decided that sector-wise wise estimates of Gross Value Added (GVA) will now be given at FACTOR cost instead of Basic prices.
  3. The concept of GVA at basic prices follows from the United Nation’s System of National Accounts (SNA) introduced in 1993 and carried forward in an identical fashion in SNA 2008 as a part of revision of compilation and classification systems. This has been adopted by CSO in its base revision carried out in January 2015.

Which of the following statements give above is/are incorrect?

  1. 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 only
  4. None of the above

Solution – B

In the revision of National Accounts statistics done by Central Statistical Organization (CSO) in January 2015, it was decided that sector-wise wise estimates of Gross Value Added (GVA) will now be given at basic prices instead of factor cost.  In simple terms, for any commodity the basic price is the amount receivable by the producer from the purchaser for a unit of a product minus any tax on the product plus any subsidy on the product.

Which of the following statements given about APACHE AH64E is/are correct?

 

  1. It can transmit and receive battlefield picture through data up linking and networking.
  2. It also carries fire control radar, which has a 360° coverage and nose-mounted sensor suite for target acquisition and night vision systems.
  3. Apache will replace Russian origin MI-28 helicopters that are on the verge of retirement.
  4. It can also shoot fire and forget anti-tank guided missiles, land to air missiles, rockets while providing versatility to helicopter in network-centric aerial warfare.

Which of the statement is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 Only
  2. 4 and 2 Only
  3. 1 and 2 Only
  4. 3 and 4 Only

Solution – C

Statement 2 is not correct – Apache will replace Russian origin MI-35 helicopters that are on the verge of retirement.

 Statement 4 is not correct- . It can also shoot fire and forget anti-tank guided missiles, air to air missiles, and rockets while providing versatility to helicopter in network-centric aerial warfare

Consider the following Rivers given below-

  1. Koyna
  2. Sabari
  3. Tawa
  4. Bhima
  5. Musi
  6. Manjira

Which of the rivers given above is/are the tributaries of the River Krishna?

  1. All of the Above
  2. 2, 4, 6
  3. 1, 4, 5
  4. 1, 3, 2

Solution – C

 

Consider the following statements given about Mesolithic culture in India-

  1. The credit of discovery of Megalithic sites in India goes to Dr. Primrose in 1866 from the sites of Sakkar and Rohri in Sindh.
  2. Chopanimando, a Mesolithic culture site in Uttar Pradesh is the site with earliest evidence of remains of clay pottery.
  3. In the Mesolithic age, the use of quartzite tools is a special feature.
  4. Mesolithic period is characterized by environmental changes began during this period.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. 1 and 4 only

Solution – B

Statement 1 is not correct – The credit of discovery of Megalithic sites in India goes to John Evans in 1866 from the sites of Sakkar and Rohri in Sindh.

Statement 3 is not correct- In Mesolithic age Agate, Zasper, Cher, Chalcedony etc were used as raw materials to make some stone implements in the place of Quartzite which was the main raw material of stone implements in the Palaeolithic age.

Consider the following statements and select which of the following is/are correct

  1. Danube through Austria before emptying into the Black Sea is the only major European river that flows eastwards.
  2. Föhn wind, a warm air mass that originates in the African Sahara and moves north rapidly, periodically raising temperatures up to 10 °C (18 °F) in a short period of time, flows through Austria.
  3. Both of them are correct
  4. None of them is/are correct

Solution – 3

 

 

 

Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Maandhaan Yojana-

  1. All shopkeepers and self-employed persons, as well as retail traders with GST turnover below Rs 1.5 crore and aged between 18-40 years, can enrol for the scheme.
  2. During the receipt of pension, if an eligible subscriber dies, his spouse shall be only entitled to receive twenty five per cent.
  3. If an eligible subscriber has given regular contributions and become permanently disabled due to any cause before attaining his age of 60 years, and is unable to continue to contribute under this Scheme, his spouse shall be entitled to continue with the Scheme.
  4. The Age group for contribution is for 18-60 years.

Which of the following is/are correct?

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 4 and 2 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Solution – D

Statement 2 is not correct – During the receipt of pension, if an eligible subscriber dies, his spouse shall be only entitled to receive fifty per cent.

Statement 4 is not correct- It covers age contribution is between – 18-40 years.

 

Consider the following statements about facial recognition technology-

  1. Tokyo 2020 will be first Olympics to use facial recognition technology to increase security around all venues.
  2. Kempegowda International Airport (KIA) in Bengaluru, capital of Karnataka is set to become first airport in Asia to introduce face recognition based passage system technology from 2019.
  3. National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) has released a request proposal for an Automated Facial Recognition System (AFRS) to be used by police officers across the country.
  4. A facial recognition system is a technology capable of identifying or verifying a person from a digital image or a video frame from a video source.

 

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3, 4
  3. None of the above
  4. All of the above

Solution – D

 

Recently, the Union Government unveiled its plan to launch a new scheme for free treatment of Hepatitis C in the country. Against this backdrop, consider the following statements.
1) Hepatitis C is a bacterial disease and affects the liver.
2) Hepatitis C can also be spread from an infected mother to her baby during birth.
3) As of now, there is no vaccine against hepatitis C.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. None of them

Solution – B

Hepatitis-C is a viral disease that causes liver inflammation leading to diminished liver function or liver failure.

It is referred to as a silent epidemic as most people infected with HCV have no symptoms of the disease until liver damage becomes apparent, which may take decades.

Chronic HCV infection could lead to scarring and poor liver function (cirrhosis) over many years, resulting in complications such as bleeding, jaundice, fluid accumulation in the abdomen, infections and liver cancer.

 

Which of the following is not correctly matched?

  1. Bharatnatyam – Rukmini Arundale
  2. Manipuri Dance- Zaveri Sisters
  3. Kuchipudi – Sitara Devi
  4. Odissi – Sonal Man Singh

Solution – C

 

Which of the following conditions is/are conducive for the formation of tropical cyclones?

  1. Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air.
    2. Large value of Coriolis force.
    3. Inflow of air at upper level of atmosphere.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. a) 1 and 2 only
    b) 1 only
    c) 1 and 3 only
    d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution – A

Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air is the most important condition for formation of tropical cyclone. Where Coriolis force is zero (like equator), tropical cyclones do not develop. An upper level outflow of air (and not inflow) helps in formation of tropical cyclone.

 

With reference to National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), consider the following statements:
1. only a retired Chief Justice of India can become chairman of NHRC.
2. The chairman can be reappointed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) both 1 and 2
d) neither 1 nor 2

Solution – A

Only a retired Chief Justice of India can become chairman of NHRC. After their tenure, the chairman and members of NHRC are not eligible for further employment under the Central or a state government.

 

Consider the following statements –

  1. All higher education institutions of India are eligible to apply for the eminence tag.
  2. The selected institutes will enjoy complete academic and administrative autonomy.
  3. The Ministry of Human Resource Development takes the decision to give Institution of Eminence status to six institutes, three each from the public and private sectors.

Which of the following is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 3 Only

Solution – B

Statement 1 is not correct- Only higher education institutions currently placed in the top 500 of global rankings or top 50 of the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) are eligible to apply for the eminence tag.

Statement 3 is not correct- The government will run 10 of these and they will receive special funding.

 

Consider the following Countries as the members of the Organization of Islamic Cooperation –

  1. Mali
  2. Pakistan
  3. Thailand
  4. Zanzibar
  5. Russia

Which of the above mentioned countries belong to the Organization of Islamic Cooperation?

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. None of the above

 

Solution – C

Thailand and Russia are Observor States in OIC, whereas Zanzibar withdrew its status of membership in 1993.

http://www.oicexchanges.org/members/oic-member-state-countries – Check out the other members of OIC states.

 

Consider the following statements about Malaria –

  1. Mosquirix vaccine has been recommended by World Health Organization for pilot introduction in selected areas of 3 African countries- Ghana, Kenya and Malawi.
  2. Telangana Durgama Anchalare Malaria Nirakaran (DAMaN) initiative aims to deliver services to the most inaccessible and hardest hit people of the State. The initiative has in-built innovative strategies to combat asymptomatic malaria.
  3. Argentina is the second country in the Americas to be certified in 45 years, after Brazil in June 2018.
  4. Female Anophelesmosquitoes deposit parasite sporozoites into the skin of a human host which leads to the disease.

Which of the following statements give above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 4 Only
  2. 2 and 3 Only
  3. 1 and 2 Only
  4. 2 and 4 Only

Solution – A

Statement 2 is not correct- Odisha’s Durgama Anchalare Malaria Nirakaran (DAMaN) initiative is significant.

The initiative aims to deliver services to the most inaccessible and hardest hit people of the State. The initiative has in-built innovative strategies to combat asymptomatic malaria.

 

The programme is jointly implemented by Indian Council of Medical Research-National Institute of Malaria Research (ICMR-NIMR), National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP), Odisha and Medicines for Malaria Venture (MMV).

Statement 3 is not correct – Argentina is the second country in the Americas to be certified in 45 years, after Paraguay in June 2018.

 

 

Consider the following movements and their leaders from the pre independence era in India–

Movement                                                                                                Leaders

  1. Mahar Movement B.R Ambedkar
  2. Nair Movement Dr. T.M Nair
  3. Justice Party Movement C.N Mudalair
  4. Self-Respect Movement EV Ramaswami Naicker

Which of the following mentioned above pair(s) are/is correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 4 Only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 Only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 Only
  4. All of the Above

 

Solution – C

Nair Movement – Started under the leadership of CV Raman Pillai, K Rama Krishna Pillai and M. Padmanabha Pillai in 1861.

Causes –  

  1. It was against Brahminic dominion. 2. The Malayali Memorial was formed by Raman Pillai in 1891 and Nair Service Society was set up by Padmanabha Pillai in 1914.

 

Consider the following hill ranges of the Peninsular India –

  1. Nallamalla Hills
  2. Sirumali Hills
  3. Shevaroy Hills
  4. Javadi Hills
  5. Venukonda Hills
  6. Palkonda Hills

 Select the pairs which arranges these Hill Ranges from the North to South

  1. 4, 2, 6, 3, 1 and 5
  2. 3, 2, 5, 6, 4 and 1
  3. 1, 5, 6, 4, 3 and 2
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

 

Solution – C

 

Consider the following statements –

  1. Further south the Barail Range swings to west into Garo, Jaintia and Khasi Hills which are an eastward continuation of the Indian peninsular block.
  2. Patkai Bum and Naga Hills form the watershed between India and Bhutan.
  3. The eastern syntaxial bend occurs near the Namche Barwa.
  4. The western syntaxial bend occurs near the Nanda Devi where the Indus River has cut a deep gorge.

Which of the above statements is/are correct about Himalayas?

  1. Only 3
  2. Only 1
  3. Only 4
  4. Only 2

Solution – A

Statement 1 is not correct – Further south the Barail Range swings to west into Jaintia, Khasi and Garo hills which are an eastward continuation of the Indian peninsular block. They are separated from the main block by Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers.

Statement 2 is not correct – Patkai Bum and Naga Hills form the watershed between India and Myanmar.

Statement 4 is not correct- The western syntaxial bend occurs near the Nanga Parbat where the Indus River has cut a deep gorge.

 

 

Consider the following statements –

  1. Inactivated vaccines are used as vaccines for the likes of hepatitis A, hepatitis B, poliovirus, haemophilic influenza type b, meningococcal, pneumococcal and the injected form of influenza.
  2. The ultimate goal of Mission Indradhanush is to ensure full immunization with all available vaccines for children up to five years and pregnant women.
  3. SEHAT is an initiative to provide healthcare facilities in rural areas, the government of India which is a telemedicine initiative in collaboration with Fortis Hospitals under which people can consult doctors through video link.
  4. Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare have launched Project Sunrise on for prevention of AIDS in the 8 North-Eastern states. The funding of project is done by the Centre for Disease Control of the United States.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

  1. All of the above
  2. 1 and 4 Only
  3. 1 and 3 Only
  4. 2 and 3 Only

 

 

Solution – B

Statement 2 is not correct – The ultimate goal of Mission Indradhanush is to ensure full immunization with all available vaccines for children up to 2 years and pregnant women.

Statement 3 is not correct – SEHAT is an initiative to provide healthcare facilities in rural areas, the government of India which is a telemedicine initiative in collaboration With Apollo Hospitals under which people can consult doctors through video link and not Fortis.

 

Consider the following statements given below –

  1. The International Migrant Stock 2019, a dataset released by the Population Division of the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (DESA)
  2. In 2019, regionally, North America hosts the largest number of international migrants followed by Europe and Northern Africa and Western Asia.
  3. Migrants from Mexico constituted the second largest “diaspora” after Indians followed by China.
  4. The share of migrant women was highest in Northern America (52%) and Europe (51%) and lowest in sub-Saharan Africa (47%) and Northern Africa and Western Asia (36%).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. All of the above

Solution – C

Statement 2 is not correct – In 2019, regionally, Europe hosts the largest number of international migrants (82 million), followed by Northern America (59 million) and Northern Africa and Western Asia (49 million) according to the data released by the Population Division of the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (DESA).

 

Consider the following statements about Yemen –

  1. There is a dispute between Yemen and Saudi Arabia over ownership of the Hanish Islands and fishing rights in the Red Sea and was resolved by Treaty of Jeddah in 2000.
  2. Yemen is famous for the first commercial cultivation of Coffee and made the Port town of Mocha for its trade.
  3. Tihamah is a nearly 419-kilometre long, semi desert coastal plain that runs along the Red Sea and is part of the Arabian Peninsula coastal fog desert ecoregion is a feature of Yemen’s coastline.
  4. Yemen’s Shibam called “Manhattan of the Desert” was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1982; this city is famous for its ancient mud brick high-rise buildings.

Which of the following statements given above is incorrect?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Only 3
  4. only 4

 

Solution – A

Statement 1 is not correct – The dispute between Saudi Arabia and Yemen was resolved in June 2000 with the signing of the Treaty of Jeddah. This agreement provides coordinates for use in delineating the land and maritime border.  The dispute between Yemen and Eritrea over ownership of the Hanish Islands and fishing rights in the Red Sea, in 1999 an international arbitration panel awarded sovereignty of the islands to Yemen.

 

Consider the following countries in regards to International Solar Alliance –

  1. Nigeria
  2. Cuba
  3. Japan
  4. Fiji
  5. Chile
  6. United Arab Emirates

Which of the countries mentioned above has signed and also ratified the International Solar Alliance?

  1. 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only

C.3, 4 and 6 only

  1. 1, 2, 4 and 6 only

Solution – D

All of the countries mentioned above are members of the International Solar Alliance but only Nigeria, Cuba, Fiji, U.A.E are members who have ratified the agreement.

 

Consider the following statements about Gharial Conservation in India-

  1. The Indian Crocodile Conservation Project was set up in 1975 under the auspices of the Government of India, initially in Odisha’s Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary.
  2. The Indian Crocodile Conservation Project was implemented with financial aid of the United Nations Development Fund and UNESCO.
  3. Presently, the wild populations of gharials can only be found in Bangladesh, India, Pakistan, Bhutan and Nepal.
  4. Gharials’ survive in freshwater as well as saline water of the seas near the coastal areas.

Which of the following above mentioned statements are correct?

  1. All of the above
  2. 2, 3 and 4 Only
  3. 1, 2 and 4 Only
  4. 1 Only

Solution – D

Statement 2 is not correct – The Indian Crocodile Conservation Project was implemented with financial aid of the United Nations Development Fund and FAO.

Statement 3 is not correct – The geographical range of Gharial distribution has dwindled throughout Pakistan, Bhutan, India, Nepal and Bangladesh.

Presently, the wild populations of gharials can only be found in Bangladesh, India and Nepal.

Statement 4 is not correct – Gharial (Gavialis gangeticus), also known as the gavial, and fish-eating crocodile is a crocodilian in the family Gavialidae native to sandy freshwater river banks in the plains.

 

Which of the following articles mentioned below of the Indian Constitution seeks to prevent atrocities against the Scheduled Castes and Tribes of India?

  1. Article 17
  2. Article 46
  3. Article 47
  4. Article 338
  5. Article 338A

Select from the codes given below-

  1. All of the above
  2. 4, 5 and 1 only
  3. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
  4. 1, 4 and 5 only

 

Solution – C

Article 47: Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health

The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purpose of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health.

 

 

Consider the following industries below –

  1. Coal
  2. Natural Gas
  3. Fertilizers
  4. Cement
  5. Steel

Arrange the following Core Industries of India according to the descending weightage assigned to them?

  1. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
  2. 5, 1, 2, 4 and 3
  3. 1, 5, 2, 4 and 3
  4. 5, 2, 4, 1 and 3

Solution – B

Steel – 17.92 %, Coal – 10.33%, Natural Gas- 6.88%, Cement- 5.37% and Fertilizers – 2.63%

 

Consider the following statements about –

  1. The Global Financial Stability Report is an annual report published by the International Monetary Fund.
  2. The Global Financial Stability Report (GFSR) replaced two previous reports by the IMF, the annual International Capital Markets Report and the quarterly Emerging Market Financing Report.
  3. India is expected to grow at 7.2% in 2019-20 according to IMF’s predictions.
  4. According to The Global Financial Stability Report global growth is projected to slow from 3.6 percent in 2018 to 3.3 percent in 2019.

Which of the above given statements are/is true?

  1. All of the above
  2. None of the above
  3. 2 and 4 Only
  4. 1 , 2 and 4

Solution – C

Statement 3 is not correct – The IMF has cut the growth forecast for India as well. India is expected to grow at 7.3% in 2019-20. The IMF in June 2019  however projected a slower growth rate for India in 2019 and 2020, a downward revision of 0.3 per cent for both the years, saying its GDP will now grow respectively at the rate of 7 and 7.2 per cent reflecting a weaker-than expected outlook for domestic demand

Read more at:
//economictimes.indiatimes.com/articleshow/70348753.cms?from=mdr&utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

 

Statement 1 is not correct – Global Financial Stability Report a semi-annual report by the International Monetary Fund (IMF)

 

 

 

Consider the following statements  about Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan Dhan –

  1. PM-SYM will be a Central Sector Scheme administered by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship and implemented through Life Insurance Corporation of India and CSCs.
  2. Once the beneficiary joins the scheme at the entry age of 18-40 years, the beneficiary has to contribute till 60 years of age.
  3. To be eligible for the scheme, the subscriber should be covered under New Pension Scheme (NPS), Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) scheme or Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO).
  4. Family pension is applicable to family members of the subscriber, whoever he/she wishes to nominate after the spouse.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Only 3
  4. Only 4

Solution – B

Statement 1 is not correct – PM – SMY is to be under the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Statement 3 is not correct – To be eligible for the scheme, the subscriber should not be covered under New Pension Scheme (NPS), Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) scheme or Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO).

Statement 4 is not correct – Family pension is applicable only to the Spouse of the subscriber.

 

Consider the following statements about Start Up India ranking framework-

  1. The Department of Trade and Commerce released the 2nd edition of Start up ranking framework for 2019.
  2. The Ranking Framework 2019 comprises of 7 pillars and 30 action points. The pillars will assess States’/UTs efforts across institutional support, simplifying regulations, easing public procurement, incubation support, seed funding support, venture funding support and awareness and outreach related activities.
  3. An entity will be considered a Start up in India Only for up to 7 years from its incorporation date and if an entity’s turnover for any of the financial years since its incorporation hasn’t exceeded INR 100 Cr.
  4. The result of first ever Start up state ranking were announced in December 2018 in which the top performer state in India was Karnataka.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1, 2 and 4
  2. 1, 3 and 4
  3. 1 and 3 Only
  4. 2, 3 and 1

Solution – B

Statement 1 is not correct – Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has releases the edition of Start-up Rankings.

Statement 3 is not correct- . An entity will be considered a Start up in India Only for up to 10 years from its incorporation date and if an entity’s turnover for any of the financial years since its incorporation hasn’t exceeded INR 100 Cr.

Statement 4 is not correct –  In the 2018 1st Edition – Best Performer: Gujarat

Top Performers: Karnataka, Kerala, Odisha, and Rajasthan

Leaders: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, and Telangana

 

 

Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi-

1. This income support will be transferred directly into the bank accounts of beneficiary farmers, in three equal instalments of Rs. 3,000 each.

  1. Multiple land parcels (even if each is less than 2 hectares) held by a single family will be pooled together to determine eligibility.
  2. Responsibility of identifying the landholder farmer family eligible for benefit under the scheme shall be of the State/UT Government.
  3. This is a Central Sector Scheme and will be funded fully by the Government of India.

Which of the above statements above the scheme is not correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Only 3
  4. Only 4

Solution – A

Statement 1 is not correct- Under this programme, vulnerable landholding farmer families, having cultivable land up to 2 hectares, will be provided direct income support at the rate of Rs. 6,000 per year.

 

Which of the following was the focus of expertise of the committee formed under Dr. Rajeshwar Rao?

  1. National Policy on Biofuels
  2. National Policy on Sustainable Hydropower Development
  3. National Policy on Minerals
  4. National Policy on Sustainable and Clean Energy

Solution – C

 

 

Match the Committee and their areas of expertise and select the correct codes for them-

Committee Name                                                                           Expertise Area ( Reforms)

  1. Abid Hussain Committee Small Industries
  2. Nachiket Mor Committee Virtual or digital currencies
  3. Justice M B Shah Black money
  4. U K Sinha MSME

 

  1. All of the above
  2. Only 1
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. None of the above

Solution – B

Nachiket Mor Committee was formed on Comprehensive Financial Services for Small Businesses and Low Income Households. The rest of the committee and their expertise areas are correct. The selected codes for the answer do not match the criteria and hence the solution is B only in this case.

 

 

 

 

 

Consider the following statements on MSP for Minor Forest Produce approved by G.O.I-

  1. MSP for Minor Forest Produce list added 17 more items to the forest produce covered under the market support scheme recently.
  2. The ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change issued the notification and it is now for the states to implement this.
  3. It is a centrally sponsored scheme which will be managed at the state level by National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation.

Which of the above mentioned statements is/are incorrect?

  1. None of the above
  2. 1 and 2 Only
  3. 2 and 3 Only
  4. 1 and 3 Only

Solution – C

Statement 2 is not correct – MSP FOR MINOR FOREST PRODUCE is notified by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Statement 3 is not correct – Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India is the Nodal Ministry for implementation of the scheme which will announce Minimum Support Price (MSP) for the selected MFPs with the technical support from TRIFED.

TRIFED will act as the Central Nodal Agency for implementation and monitoring of the scheme through State level implementing agencies.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Consider the following statements about WEB- WONDER WOMEN CAMPAIGN –

  1. It was launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Government of India in association with the NGO Breakthrough and Facebook India.
  2. The Ministry aims to recognize the fortitude of Indian women stalwarts from across the globe that has used the power of social media to spread awareness on climate change issues.
  3. Web Wonder Women is the third leg of the ‘Women Achievers’ campaign of the ministry.
  4. In 2015, the ministry had collaborated with Facebook to recognise ‘100 Women Achievers’ who have excelled in diverse sectors of public work.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

  1. 1, 3 and 4
  2. 3 and 4 Only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1 and 3

Solution – B

Statement 1 is not correct – . It was launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Government of India in association with the NGO Breakthrough and Facebook India.

Statement 2 is not correct – Online campaign Web- Wonder Women to discover and celebrate the exceptional achievements of women, who have been driving positive agenda of social change via social media.

 

 

Which of the following statements about Multi dimensional Poverty Index is/are correct?

  1. India has made momentous progress in reducing multidimensional poverty, bringing down its poverty rate from 55% to 28% in ten years.
  2. Among the states, Jharkhand is the poorest state with more than half of its population in poverty.
  3. Among the South Asian countries, only Maldives boasts lower MPI of 0.007 than India (0.121).
  4. The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) releases the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI).
  5. Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) identifies people’s deprivations across three key dimensions – health, education and mortality rates.

Select the correct statement codes from below-

  1. 1, 2 and 5 Only
  2. 1, 3 and 4 Only
  3. 2, 3 and 5 Only
  4. 1, 2 and 4 Only

Solution – B

Statement 2 is not correct – Among the states, Bihar is the poorest state with more than half of its population in poverty.

Statement 5 is not correct – Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) identifies people’s deprivations across three key dimensions – health, education and Living standards.

 

Consider the following statements about Jaitapur Nuclear Power Plant –

  1. It is built under Indo-France Civil Nuclear Deal signed in December 2010.
  2. It will have 7 EPR designed and developed by Areva of France, each of 1650 MW.
  3. The power project is situated at Madban village of Ratnagiri district in Maharashtra (west coast of India).
  4. State-run Nuclear Power Corporation of India (NPCIL) is builder and operator of this plant.

Which of the above statement is incorrect?

  1. Only 2
  2. Only 1
  3. Only 4
  4. Only 3

Solution – 2

Statement 2 is not correct – It will have 6 EPR designed and developed by Areva of France, each of 1650 MW, totalling to about 9900 MW.

 

Consider the following statements in regards to Rainfed Agriculture in India-

  1. A new Rainfed agriculture atlas has been released recently by Revitalising Rainfed Agriculture (RRA) Network.
  2. According to the atlas, there is a clear-cut bias towards irrigated areas when it comes to public investment in agriculture in the country and there has been negligence toward Rainfed areas.
  3. The Governing council of the National Rainfed Area Authority is chaired by Union Agriculture Minister and co-chaired by Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate change.
  4. Revitalising Rainfed Agriculture Network is a pan India network of members including eminent academics, policy makers, farmer and civil society organisations.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Only 3
  4. Only 4

Solution – C

Statement 3 is not correct – The Governing council of the National Rainfed Area Authority is chaired by Union Agriculture Minister and co-chaired by Union Rural Development.

Consider the following statements about Indian Council of Agricultural Research –

  1. Earlier known as Imperial Council of Agricultural Research, it was established on 16 July 1929 as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
  2. ICAR has recently launched Rs 1100 crore ambitious National Agricultural Higher Education Project (NAHEP) to attract talent and strengthen higher agricultural education in the country to be funded by the Asian Development Bank and the Indian Government.
  3. ICAR is First institute in the world to sequence sweet pea genome.
  4. Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) and Indian Institute of Science have signed an MoU to collaborate in the area of Food and Agricultural – mutually agreed areas of agri-foods, medicinal and aromatic plants, nutraceuticals, precision agriculture, big data analysis, use of artificial intelligence, genetic modifications etc.

Which of the following statements is/ are incorrect?

  1. 1, 2 and 3 Only
  2. 2 and 4 Only
  3. 1 and 2 Only
  4. 2, 3 and 4 Only

Solution – D

Statement 2 is not correct – ICAR has recently launched Rs 1100 crore ambitious National Agricultural Higher Education Project (NAHEP) to attract talent and strengthen higher agricultural education in the country to be funded by the World Bank and the Indian Government

Statement 3 is not correct – ICAR is First institute in the world to sequence pigeon pea genome.

Statement 4 is not correct – Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) CSIR have signed an MoU to collaborate in the area of Food and Agricultural.

 

 

 

 

Consider the following statements about Uranium Reserves in India-

  1. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research (AMD), a constituent unit of Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), has the mandate to identify and evaluate mineral resources of uranium in India
  2. Nuclear power is the fourth -largest source of electricity in India after coal, gas, hydroelectricity.
  3. March 2011 large deposits of uranium were discovered in the Tummalapalle belt and in the Bhima basin at Gogi in Karnataka.
  4. India currently imports uranium from Kazakhstan, Canada, France and Russia.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

Solution – C

Statement 2 is not correct – Nuclear power is the Fifth -largest source of electricity in India after coal, gas, hydroelectricity and wind power.

 

Consider the following statements about 32nd GST council meeting held recently-

  1. The annual turnover limit under which companies would be exempt from GST has been raised to 40 lakh for most States and 20 lakh for the North Eastern and hill states, from the earlier limit of 20 lakh and 10 lakh, respectively, this year.
  2. GST Council will be a joint forum for the Centre and the States- Union Finance Minister will be the Chairperson.
  3. The voting weightage in the GST council for centre and states is – 2/3rd and 1/3rd respectively.
  4. Kerala can levy a cess of up to 1% for up to two years on intra-State supplies to help finance the disaster relief efforts following the recent floods in the state.

Which of the following statements mentioned above is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3 Only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 Only
  3. 1, 2 and 4 Only
  4. All of the above

Solution – C

Statement 3 is not correct – The voting weightage in the GST council for centre and states is – 1/3rd and 2/3rd respectively.

 

 

Consider the following statements given below-

  1. Diffo Bridge a 426m long bridge recently built over Diffo River, in the Northeast Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh
  2. The work was executed by Project Sewak, Border Roads Organization (BRO) in this region.
  3. Project Udayak of the BRO, has been formed out of the two task forces of – 48 BRTF and 752 BRTF, carved out of the Project Chetak and Project Sewak.
  4. It would provide uninterrupted access between Dibang valley and Lohit valley.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 3 and 4 Only
  2. 1 and 2 Only
  3. 1 and 4 Only
  4. 2 and 3 Only

Solution – B

Statement 2 is not correct – The work was executed by Project Udayak, Border Roads Organization (BRO) in this region.

Statement 3 is not correct – Project Udayak of the BRO, has been formed out of the two task forces of – 48 BRTF and 752 BRTF, carved out of the Project Vartak and Project Sewak.

 

 

Consider the following statements and select the correct codes given below –

  1. Water from the Renuka dam will be used by U.P., Haryana and National Capital Territory of Delhi from Hathnikund barrage, by the NCT of Delhi from Wazirabad barrage and by U.P., Haryana and Rajasthan from the Okhla barrage.
  2. The shares of these states viz. Haryana, UP/UK, HP, Rajasthan and NCT of Delhi are 47.82%, 33.65%, 3.15%, 9.34% and 6.04% respectively.
  3. Govt. of NCT of Delhi has agreed to fund 70% of the cost of power component of the said project.
  4. Three storage projects are proposed to be constructed on the river Yamuna and two of its tributaries.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 2 and 4 Only
  2. 1, 2 and 4 Only
  3. 1 and 4 Only
  4. 1, 3 and 4 Only

Solution – B

Statement 3 is not correct – Govt. of NCT of Delhi has agreed to fund 90% of the cost of power component of the said project.

 

Consider the following statements about e-NAM-

  1. The first inter-State trade on e-NAM was carried out between UP and Uttarakhand followed by that between AP and Telengana.
  2. The eNAM, launched in 2016, agri-trading was initially allowed within a mandi and later inter-mandi within a state was permitted.
  3. The Portal is managed by Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) with the technology provider, NFCL’s iKisan division.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Solution – D

 

In Regards to the Interim Budget 2019, which of the below statements is/correct?

  1. India is the fastest growing economy of the World.
  2. Inflation was pegged at 4.5% in the interim budget.
  3. Current Account Deficit (CAD) was pegged at 2.5% of GDP.
  4. The State revenues showed to be improving with guaranteed 12% annual revenue increase for the first five years from GST.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

  1. 1, 2 and 4
  2. 1 and 3 Only
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 1 and 4 Only

Solution – B

Statement 2 is not correct – Inflation – 4.6%

Statement 4 is not correct – The State revenues are improving with guaranteed 14% annual revenue increase for the first five years from GST.

 

 

Consider the following statements about small finance banks in India-

  1. They can turn into full fledged banks only after the approval of the CCEA.
  2. Maximum loan size to a single person cannot exceed 10% of total capital funds; cannot exceed 15% in the case of a group.
  3. Promoter’s minimum initial contribution to the paid-up equity capital of such bank shall at least be 40% which can be gradually brought down to 26% within 12 years from the date of commencement of operations
  4. They have to have 25% of branches in unbanked areas.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

  1. 1 and 2 Only
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. 3 and 4 Only

Solution – C

Statement 1 is not correct – They can turn into full fledged banks only after the approval of the R.B.I

 

Consider the following recommendations of the 2nd S.S Tarapore Committee?

  1. The committee had supported the idea of full convertibility in the capital account.
  2. It recommended this to be done in a single phase manner and subject to certain preconditions.
  3. NRI should not be allowed to invest in capital markets.
  4. The ceiling for External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) should be raised for automatic approval

Select the correct statements given above –

  1. 1 and 3 Only
  2. 2 and 3 Only
  3. 1, 2 and 3 Only
  4. 1 and 4 only

Solution – D

Statement 2 is not correct – recommended this to be done in three phased manner and subject to certain preconditions.

Statement 3 is not correct – It recommended that NRI should be allowed to invest in Capital Markets and tax benefits of sort be allowed to them.

 

Consider the following statements given above in regards to the payment banks in India-

  1. A payments bank can work as a business correspondent (BC) of another bank.
  2. RBI has mandated the minimum paid-up equity capital for payments bank at Rs.10 crore.
  3. They cannot distribute any kind of financial products.
  4. It can take deposits up to Rs.1 lakh per account and it can issue debit cards and credit cards on bigger deposits.

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Solution – D

They can also distribute simple financial products like mutual fund units and insurance products. It can take deposits up to Rs.1 lakh per account and it can issue debit cards but not credit cards. RBI has mandated the minimum paid-up equity capital for payments bank at Rs.100 crore.

 

Consider the following statements about e-way Bill –

  1. It is a document to be generated online under the GST system, when goods of the value of more than 50,000 are shipped inter-State or intra-State.
  2. The E-way bill number, mapped to an RFID (radio frequency identification device) can also be carried in the absence of an invoice and a copy of e-way bill.
  3. If a consignment is found without an E-way bill, a penalty of 9000 or tax sought to be evaded, whichever is greater, can be levied.
  4. E-way bill requirement for Intra State movement of goods in Delhi began from 16th June 2018.

Which of the following given above is/are correct?

  1. All of the above
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution – C

Statement 3 is not correct – If a consignment is found without an E-way bill, a penalty of 10,000 or tax sought to be evaded, whichever is greater, can be levied.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Consider the following statements in regards to Swift system-

  1. SWIFT India is a joint venture of top Indian public and private sector banks and SWIFT (Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication).
  2. SWIFT facilitate funds transfer and sends payment orders, which must be settled by correspondent accounts that the institutions have with each other.
  3. SWIFT – a global member-owned cooperative that is headquartered in Switzerland and was founded in 1973.
  4. SWIFT established the customer security programme (CSP) in early 2016 to support customers in the fight against a growing cyber threat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 Only
  2. 1 and 3 Only
  3. 1 and 4 Only
  4. 1 Only

Solution – C

Statement 2 is not correct- SWIFT does not facilitate funds transfer but just sends payment orders, which must be settled by correspondent accounts that the institutions have with each other.

Statement 3 is not correct – SWIFT – a global member-owned cooperative that is headquartered in Brussels and was founded in 1973.

 

Consider the following statements about renewed stressed assets framework in India-

  1. The new framework gives lenders a breather from the one-day default rule whereby they had to draw up a resolution plan (RP) for implementation within 180 days of the first default.
  2. It gives lenders (scheduled commercial banks, all-India financial institutions and small finance banks) 60 days to review the borrower account on default.
  3. The new circular is however not applicable to small finance banks and systemically important non-deposit taking non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) and deposit-taking NBFCs.

 

  1. An inter-creditor agreement is aimed at the resolution of loan accounts with a size of 50 crore and above that are under the control of a group of lenders. It is part of the “Sashakt” plan approved by the government to address the problem of resolving bad loans.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1 and 4 Only
  4. 2 and 3 Only

Solution – C

Statement 2 is not correct – It gives lenders (scheduled commercial banks, all-India financial institutions and small finance banks) 30 days to review the borrower account on default.

Statement 3 is not correct – The new circular is applicable to small finance banks and systemically important non-deposit taking non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) and deposit-taking NBFCs.

 

 

Consider the following statements –

  1. The committee chaired by Injeti Srinivas, secretary, corporate affairs ministry submitted its recommendations on Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) to the Minister of Corporate Affairs (MCA).
  2. The CSR provisions within the Act is applicable to companies with an annual turnover of 2,000 crore and more, or a net worth of Rs. 400 crore and more, or a net profit of Rs. 5 crore and more.
  3. The Act encourages companies to spend 2% of their average net profit in the previous three years on CSR activities.
  4. The Srinivas committee recommended that the expenses towards CSR should be eligible for deduction in the computation of taxable income.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. All of the above
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Solution – C

Statement 2 is not correct – The CSR provisions within the Act is applicable to companies with an annual turnover of 1,000 crore and more, or a net worth of Rs. 500 crore and more, or a net profit of Rs. 5 crore and more.

 

In regards to the recent changes made by the Government in the Corporate Tax structure, consider the following statements –

  1. Effective corporate tax rate after surcharge and cess to be 25.17 percent.
  2. MAT has been reduced to 12 percent from 18.5 percent for companies who continue to avail exemptions and incentives.
  3. To attract investment in manufacturing, local companies incorporated after October 2019 and till March 2023, will pay tax at 15 percent.
  4. To stabilise flow of funds into the market the enhanced surcharge announced in Budget 2019 will not apply on capital gains arising on sale of any security, including derivatives by foreign portfolio investors (FPI).

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. All of the above

 

Solution – C

Statement 2 is not correct – MAT has been reduced to 15 percent from 18.5 percent for companies who continue to avail exemptions and incentives

Consider the following statements about Poshan Abhiyaan –

  1. The Abhiyaan targets to reduce stunting, under nutrition, anaemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) and reduce low birth weight by 2%, 2%, 3% and 2% per annum respectively.
  2. Under the Abhiyaan, Swasth Bharat Preraks will be deployed one in each district for coordinating with district officials and enabling fast and efficient execution of the Abhiyaan across the country.

3. National Council on India’s Nutrition Challenges was set up under the Poshan Abhiyaan, the Council is also known as National Council on Nutrition (NCN).

4. NCN is headed by the C.E.O of the NITI Aayog.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3 Only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 Only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 Only
  4. All of the above

Solution – A

Statement 4 is not correct – NCN is headed by the Vice-Chairman of the NITI Aayog.

 

 

Consider the following statements about Astra Missile developed by India indigenously –

  1. The Astra missile is developed by Defence Research and Development Organization.
  2. Electronic Counter-Countermeasures or ECCM feature enables Astra missile to overcome defensive measures put forth for the target by the enemy.
  3. Payload/warhead capacity is 18kg.
  4. Another feature of this missile is the option to choose between “Lock-on before Launch – LOBL” and “Lock-on after Launch – LOAL.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1 and 2
  2. 1, 2 and 4 Only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 Only
  4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution – B

Statement 3 is not correct – the Payload/warhead capacity: 15 kg of the Astra Missile

 

Consider the following statements given below –

  1. The World Health Organisation (WHO) had adopted “The Global Plan of Action on the Public Health Response to Dementia 2017-2025” at the 70th World Health Assembly in 2017.
  2. Alzheimer’s and Related Disorders Society of India have been successful at initiating an Andhra Pradesh State Initiative on Dementia which is the first public-private partnership for dementia care and awareness.
  3. Dr. Kiran Bhaskar (an Indian-American scientist at the University of New Mexico) led team has developed an early version vaccine for Alzheimer’s disease, this year.
  4. Alzheimer’s is caused by the build-up of proteins known as tangles or plaques within the brain and is also known as the third type of diabetes.

Which of the following is/are correct?

  1. All of the above
  2. 1, 3 and 4 Only
  3. 1, 2 and 3 Only
  4. 1, 2 and 4 Only

 

Solution – B

Statement 2 is not correct – Alzheimer’s and Related Disorders Society of India has been successful at initiating a Kerala State Initiative on Dementia which is the first public-private partnership for dementia care and awareness.

 

Consider the following statements about Ayushman Bharat PM Arogya Yojana –

  1. Scheme also seeks to accelerate India’s progress towards the achievement Sustainable Development Goal – 4 (SDG4).
  2. Digital India will be working as partner for this scheme for operationalizing robust, modular and interoperable IT platform which will involve a paperless and cashless transaction.
  3. The National Health Authority would be chaired by Union Health Minister.
  4. PMJAY will be funded with 50% contribution from Centre and remaining from the states.

Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

  1. 2 and 4 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution – B

 Statement 1 is not correct – Scheme also seeks to accelerate India’s progress towards the achievement Sustainable Development Goal – 3 (SDG3).

Statement 2 is not correct – NITI Aayog will be working as partner for this scheme for operationalizing robust, modular and interoperable IT platform which will involve a paperless and cashless transaction.

Statement 4 is not correct – PMJAY will be funded with 60% contribution from Centre and remaining from the states.

Consider the following statements about the Renewable Energy in the country –

  1. Recently the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has clarified to all the stakeholders that energy produced using various forms of ocean energy such as tidal, wave, ocean thermal energy conversion etc. shall be considered as Renewable Energy and shall be eligible for meeting the non-solar Renewable Purchase Obligations (RPO).
  2. India ranked fifth globally for new investment in renewable energy in 2018 in the REN21’s Renewable 2019 Global Status Report (GSR) released.
  3. Renewable Purchase Obligations instituted in 2011, is a mandate that requires large power procurers to source a pre-determined fraction of their electricity from renewable sources.
  4. India has moved up two places to rank 76th on a global energy transition index, released by United Nations Development Programme.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2 and 3 Only
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1 and 3 Only

 

Solution – D

Statement 2 is not correct – India ranked fourth globally for new investment in renewable energy in 2018 in the REN21’s Renewable 2019 Global Status Report (GSR) released.

Statement 4 is not correct- India has moved up two places to rank 76th on a global energy transition index, released by World Economic Forum.

 

Which of the following services are sponsored under ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services) to help achieve its objectives?
1. Immunization
2. Supplementary nutrition
3. Health checkups
4. Pre-school formal education up to 2 years
5. Nutrition and Health information

Codes:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) All

 

Solution – B

The following services are sponsored under ICDS to help achieve its objectives:
1. Immunization
2. Supplementary nutrition
3. Health checkups
4. Referral services
5. Pre-school non formal education
6. Nutrition and Health information

 

Consider the following statements about a National Park in India –

  1. Locally known as Thekkady, is located high in the Cardamom Hills and Pandalam Hills of the south Western Ghats along the border with Tamil Nadu.
  2. In 1934 by the Maharaja of Travancore, Chithira Thirunal Balarama Varma, by declaring the forests around this area’s lake was declared a private game reserve.
  3. It forms the major watershed of two important rivers of Kerala, the Periyar and the Pamba.
  4. It comes under IUCN category II (national park) area.

Which National Park is being referred to in the above statements?

  1. Silent Valley National Park
  2. Periyar National Park
  3. Pampadum Shola National Park
  4. Eravikulam National Park

Solution – B

Consider the following statements –

  1. The Nilgiri Biosphere includes the Aralam, Mudumalai, Mukurthi, Nagarhole, Bandipur and Silent Valley national parks, as well as the Wayanad and Sathyamangalam wildlife sanctuaries.
  2. Silent Valley National Park was designated as the core area of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
  3. Silent Valley is home to the largest population of lion-tailed macaques, an endangered species of primate.
  4. The Silent Valley in 1888 was declared a reserved land under the Forest Act and later notified as a Reserved Forest by the Government of Madras in 1914 in British India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. All of the above
  2. 1, 2 and 3 Only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 Only
  4. 1, 3 and 4 Only

Solution – A

 

 

 

Consider the following statements about Generalized System of Preference –

  1. The WTO Hong Kong Ministerial Decision of UNCTAD in 2005 the members agreed that developed countries and developing countries in a position to do so would grant duty-free and quota-free market access for exports of Least Developed Countries(LDC).
  2. Countries that grant GSP preferences: Australia, Belarus, Canada United Kingdom, Iceland, Japan, Kazakhstan, New Zealand, Norway, Russian Federation, Switzerland, Turkey and the United States of America.
  3. GSP in the United States was instituted in 1976 by the Trade Act of 1974.
  4. In 1971, the GATT followed the lead of UNCTAD and enacted two waivers to the MFN that permitted tariff preferences to be granted to developing country goods. Both these waivers were limited in time to ten years which in 1979 was converted to “enabling clause” of WTO of present.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. All of the above
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Solution – C

Statement 2 is not correct – Countries that grant GSP preferences: Australia, Belarus, Canada, European Union, Iceland, Japan, Kazakhstan, New Zealand, Norway, Russian Federation, Switzerland, Turkey and the United States of America.

Consider the following statements about Climate Change actions–

  1. National Mission for a “Green India emphasized on Goals that include the afforestation of 6 million hectares of degraded forest lands and expanding forest cover from 23% to 33% of India’s territory.
  2. Only companies that meet the 70% localisation threshold will be eligible for the incentives that will be available under the Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles (FAME-II) scheme to boost electric mobility under the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan.
  3. Himalayan States Regional Council created to formulate plans towards sustainable development in the Indian Himalayan region comprises two districts of Dima Hasao and Karbi Anglong in Assam and Darjeeling and Kalimpong in West Bengal.
  4. The Kyoto Protocol allows countries that have emission units to spare (emissions permitted to them but not “used”) to sell this excess capacity to countries that are over their targets.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 1, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1. 2 and 4 only
  4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Solution – B

Statement 2 is not correct – Only companies that meet the 50% localisation threshold will be eligible for the incentives that will be available under the Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles (FAME-II) scheme to boost electric mobility under the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan.

Consider the following statements –

  1. Scientists from Technion —Russian Institute of Technology has developed a concept they have named the Ramanujan Machine, after the Indian mathematician.
  2. Ramanujan machine exists as a network of computers running algorithms dedicated to finding conjectures about fundamental constants in the form of continued fractions.
  3. Ramanujan had became a Fellow of the Royal Society and earned a research degree from Oxford.
  4. Every year 22nd December is observed as National Mathematics Day to celebrate birth anniversary of great Indian Mathematician autodidact Srinivasa Ramanujan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Solution – B

Statement 1 is not correct – Scientists from Technion —Israel Institute of Technology has recently developed a concept they have named the Ramanujan Machine, after the Indian mathematician.

Statement 3 is not correct – Ramanujan had earned a research Degree from the University of Cambridge and not Oxford.

 

Consider the following statements given below –

  1. One of the significant inscriptions mentions the marriage of Satavahana ruler Vashishtiputra Satakarni with the daughter of Rudradaman I.
  2. It was a University centre by the time the area was under the rule of the Maurayan and Kushan empires.
  3. The complex comprises one hundred and nine caves, carved from the basalt rock and dating from the 1st century BCE to the 11th century CE.
  4. Rock-cut channels above the caves fed rainwater into cisterns, which provided the complex with water.

Which of the famous Buddhist Caves of India is being described by the statements above?

  1. Bedse Caves
  2. Barabar Caves
  3. Kanheri Caves
  4. Ajanta Caves

Solution – C

 

Consider the following statements about DNA and its structure-

  1. Both DNA and RNA contain Adenine, Guanine and Cytosine. The fourth base is Thymine in DNA and Uracil in RNA.
  2. Eukaryotic organisms store most of their DNA inside the cell nucleus and some of their DNA in organelles, such as mitochondria or chloroplasts.
  3. Recombinant DNA is possible because DNA molecules from all organisms share the same chemical structure. They differ only in the nucleotide sequence within that identical overall structure.
  4. Prokaryotes store their DNA only in the nucleus.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 4 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 3 and 4 only

 

Solution – C

Statement 4 is not correct – A prokaryote is a unicellular organism that lacks a membrane-bound nucleus, mitochondria, or any other membrane-bound organelle. The DNA in a prokaryotic organism is found in the cytoplasm.

 

Consider the following statements –

  1. El Nino is a climatic cycle characterised by high air pressure in the eastern Pacific and low air pressure in the western.
  2. The surface temperature could witness an increase of 8 degrees Celsius in Asian waters during El Nino.
  3. The central and eastern Pacific regions warm up for over six months and result in an El Nino condition,
  4. Cycles of malaria in India are linked to El Nino.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2 and 3 only

 

Solution – B

Statement 1 is not correct – El Nino is a climatic cycle characterised by high air pressure in the Western Pacific and low air pressure in the Eastern.

 

Consider the following statements –

  1. South Asian Regional Standards Organization was established to achieve and enhance coordination and cooperation among SAARC member states in the fields of standardization and conformity assessment and is aimed to develop harmonized Standards for the region to facilitate intra-regional trade and to have access in the global market.
  2. Observers to SAARC are as follows (i) Australia; (ii) China; (iii) the European Union; (iv) Israel; (v) Japan; (vi) the Republic of Korea; (vii) Mauritius; (viii) Myanmar; and (ix) the United States of America.
  3. South Asian Regional Standards Organization is headquartered in Pakistan.
  4. SAARC Arbitration Council is an inter-governmental body having its office in Bangladesh is mandated to provide a legal framework/forum within the region for fair and efficient settlement in economic matters only.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 1 Only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 only

Solution – B

Statement 2 is not correct – Observers to SAARC are as follows  (i) Australia; (ii) China; (iii) the European Union; (iv) Iran ; (v) Japan; (vi) the Republic of Korea; (vii) Mauritius; (viii) Myanmar; and (ix) the United States of America.

Statement 3 is not correct – South Asian Regional Standards Organization is headquartered in Bangladesh.

Statement 4 is not correct – SAARC Arbitration Council is an inter-governmental body having its office in Pakistan is mandated to provide a legal framework/forum within the region for fair and efficient settlement in economic matters only.

 

Consider the following Caves and their location in India and select the correct code given below- 

                Caves                                                                              States

  1. Bhaja Maharashtra

2.       Khandagiri                                                                      Andhra Pradesh

3.       Bagh                                                                                 Madhya Pradesh

4.       Barabar                                                                             Karnataka

Select from the options given below-

A. All of the above

B. 1, 2 and 3 Only

C. 2, 3 and 4 Only

D. 2 and 3 Only

 Solution – D

Barabar Caves are located in Bihar and Khandagiri Caves are located in Odisha.

 

Consider the following statement –

1. The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) include ending the TB epidemic by 2025 under Goal 3.

2. Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is a form of TB caused by bacteria that do not respond to first-line and second line anti-TB drugs.

3. World TB Day is observed on 24 March.

4. Bangladesh has the highest TB burden in the world

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. Only 4

C. Only 3

D. 2, 3 and 4

 

Solution – B

Statement 1 is not correct – The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) include ending the TB epidemic by 2030 under Goal 3.

Statement 2 is not correct – Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is a form of TB caused by bacteria that do not respond to first-line anti-TB drugs. MDR-TB is treatable and curable by using second-line drugs.

 Extensively drug-resistant TB (XDR-TB) is a more serious form of MDR-TB caused by bacteria that do not respond to the most effective second-line anti-TB drugs, often leaving patients without any further treatment options.

Statement 3 is not correct – India has the highest TB burden in the world. In 2018, 2.15 million TB case were reported, which is 16% more the 2017.

Which of the following states in India’s largest Bauxite producer?

  1. Odisha
  2. Jharkhand
  3. Rajasthan
  4. Karnataka

Solution – 1

 

Consider the following statements-

  1. Bauxite occurs frequently in the tropical areas where limestone rocks are exposed to weathering.
  2. Major bauxite resources are in the east coast in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
  3. The main deposits in Odisha occur in Kalahandi, Koraput, Sundargarh, Bolangir and Sambalpur districts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. All of the above
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Solution – A

 

The main contribution of Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar to education and in particular to women education are/is as follows-

  1. Break priestly monopoly of scriptural knowledge (Sanskrit) and opening to non- Brahmins
  2. Charles wood dispatch on education, influenced it towards female education
  3. Lady Hardinge medical college at Delhi
  4. Both A and B

Solution – D

 

Consider the following statements about OCI-

  1. It was Qatar that first proposed ‘Observer’ status for India at the OIC Foreign Ministers’ meets in 2002 in recognition of India’s significant Muslim population.
  2. The Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) is the second largest inter-governmental organization after the United Nations.
  3. The third session of the Islamic Summit held in Dakar in December 2005, laid down the blueprint called the Ten-Year Program of Action.
  
  1. The Islamic Summit Conference (ISC) is the supreme authority of the OIC which meets every three years to lay down the Organization’s policy

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1,2 and 4
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

Solution – A

Statement 3 is not correct – The summit of OIC in 2005 was held in Mecca.

Consider the following statements on Mahatma Gandhi-

  1. Gandhi’s autobiography “My Experiments with Truth” was originally written in Gujarati and later translated into English by Mahadev Desai.
  2. Gandhi was named the Time Magazine’s Person of the Year in 1935.
  3. The first recipient of International Gandhi Peace Prize was John Hume.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. None of the above

Solution – C

Statement 2 is not correct – Gandhi was given the title of the Person of the Year by the Time Magazine in 1930.

 

Consider the following statements about the Section 126 of the Representation of the People’s Act, 1951-

  1. It prohibits displaying any election matter by means, inter alia, of television or similar apparatus, during the period of 72 hours before the hour fixed for conclusion of poll in a constituency.
  2. Violation of the provisions of Section 126 is punishable with imprisonment up to a period of three years, or with fine or both.
  3. The provision prohibits conduct of Exit poll and dissemination of their results.
  4. A Committee constituted to review and suggest modifications and changes in the provisions of the Section 126 and other sections of the RP Act 1951 and provisions of Model Code of Conduct has submitted its report headed by senior deputy election commissioner Umesh Sinha.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 3 and 4 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Solution – A

Statement 1 is not correct – It prohibits displaying any election matter by means, inter alia, of television or similar apparatus, during the period of 48 hours before the hour fixed for conclusion of poll in a constituency.

Statement 2 is not correct – Violation of the provisions of Section 126 is punishable with imprisonment up to a period of two years, or with fine or both.

 

 

Consider the following statements about UNICEF –

  1. IAP Health Phone initiative — tackle the challenge of malnutrition in mothers and children across India has been set up with UNICEF.
  2. UNICEF is the largest UN organization in the country.
  3. Super Dads’ initiative — part of UNICEF’s campaign aims to increase understanding of how a child’s environments and experiences in early childhood can shape their future health, wellbeing.
  4. UNICEF has been working in India since 1965.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1,2 and 3
  2. 2,3 and 4
  3. 1,3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 4

      Solution – A

      Statement 4 is not correct – It has been working in India since 1949.

 

 

 

Arora IAS

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